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100% Pass Ensure 1Z0-062 Dumps with Free VCE and PDF (Question 37 – Question 48)

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QUESTION 37
An administrator account is granted the CREATE SESSION and SET CONTAINER system privileges. A multitenant container database (CDB) instant has the following parameter set:
THREADED_EXECUTION = FALSE
Which four statements are true about this administrator establishing connections to root in a CDB that has been opened in read only mode?

A.    You can conned as a common user by using the connect statement.
B.    You can connect as a local user by using the connect statement.
C.    You can connect by using easy connect.
D.    You can connect by using OS authentication.
E.    You can connect by using a Net Service name.
F.    You can connect as a local user by using the SET CONTAINER statement.

Answer: CDEF
Explanation:
* The choice of threading model is dictated by the THREADED_EXECUTION initialization parameter.
THREADED_EXECUTION=FALSE : The default value causes Oracle to run using the multiprocess model.
THREADED_EXECUTION=TRUE : Oracle runs with the multithreaded model.
* OS Authentication is not supported with the multithreaded model.
* THREADED_EXECUTION
When this initialization parameter is set to TRUE, which enables the multithreaded Oracle model, operating system authentication is not supported. Attempts to connect to the database using operating system authentication (for example, CONNECT / AS SYSDBA or CONNECT / ) when this initialization parameter is set to TRUE receive an ORA-01031″insufficient privileges” error.
F: The new SET CONTAINER statement within a call back function:
The advantage of SET CONTAINER is that the pool does not have to create a new connection to a PDB, if there is an exisitng connection to a different PDB. The pool can use the existing connection, and through SET CONTAINER, can connect to the desired PDB. This can be done using:
ALTER SESSION SET CONTAINER=<PDB Name>
This avoids the need to create a new connection from scratch.

QUESTION 38
Examine the following query output:
passleader-1z0-062-dumps-381
You issue the following command to import tables into the hr schema:
$ > impdp hr/hr directory = dumpdir dumpfile = hr_new.dmp schemas=hr TRANSFORM=DISABLE_ARCHIVE_LOGGING: Y
Which statement is true?

A.    All database operations performed by the impdp command are logged.
B.    Only CREATE INDEX and CREATE TABLE statements generated by the import are logged.
C.    Only CREATE TABLE and ALTER TABLE statements generated by the import are logged.
D.    None of the operations against the master table used by Oracle Data Pump to coordinate its activities are logged.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Oracle Data Pump disable redo logging when loading data into tables and when creating indexes. The new TRANSFORM option introduced in data pumps import provides the flexibility to turn off the redo generation for the objects during the course of import. The Master Table is used to track the detailed progress information of a Data Pump job. The Master Table is created in the schema of the current user running the Pump Dump export or import, and it keeps tracks of lots of detailed information.

QUESTION 39
You notice a performance change in your production Oracle database and you want to know which change has made this performance difference. You generate the Compare Period Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) report to further investigation. Which three findings would you get from the report?

A.    It detects any configuration change that caused a performance difference in both time periods.
B.    It identifies any workload change that caused a performance difference in both time periods.
C.    It detects the top wait events causing performance degradation.
D.    It shows the resource usage for CPU, memory, and I/O in both time periods.
E.    It shows the difference in the size of memory pools in both time periods.
F.    It gives information about statistics collection in both time periods.

Answer: ABD
Explanation:
Keyword: shows the difference.
* Full ADDM analysis across two AWR snapshot periods
Detects causes, measure effects, then correlates them
Causes: workload changes, configuration changes
Effects: regressed SQL, reach resource limits (CPU, I/O, memory, interconnect) Makes actionable recommendations along with quantified impact
* Identify what changed
/ Configuration changes, workload changes
* Performance degradation of the database occurs when your database was performing optimally in the past, such as 6 months ago, but has gradually degraded to a point where it becomes noticeable to the users. The Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) Compare Periods report enables you to compare database performance between two periods of time.
While an AWR report shows AWR data between two snapshots (or two points in time), the AWR Compare Periods report shows the difference (ABE) between two periods (or two AWR reports with a total of four snapshots). Using the AWR Compare Periods report helps you to identify detailed performance attributes and configuration settings that differ between two time periods.

QUESTION 40
Examine the parameter for your database instance:
passleader-1z0-062-dumps-401
You generated the execution plan for the following query in the plan table and noticed that the nested loop join was done. After actual execution of the query, you notice that the hash join was done in the execution plan:
passleader-1z0-062-dumps-402
Identify the reason why the optimizer chose different execution plans.

A.    The optimizer used a dynamic plan for the query.
B.    The optimizer chose different plans because automatic dynamic sampling was enabled.
C.    The optimizer used re-optimization cardinality feedback for the query.
D.    The optimizer chose different plan because extended statistics were created for the columns used.

Answer: B
Explanation:
* optimizer_dynamic_sampling
OPTIMIZER_DYNAMIC_SAMPLING controls both when the database gathers dynamic statistics, and the size of the sample that the optimizer uses to gather the statistics.
Range of values 0 to 11

QUESTION 41
Which three statements are true about adaptive SQL plan management?

A.    It automatically performs verification or evolves non-accepted plans, in COMPREHENSIVE mode when they perform better than existing accepted plans.
B.    The optimizer always uses the fixed plan, if the fixed plan exists in the plan baseline.
C.    It adds new, bettor plans automatically as fixed plans to the baseline.
D.    The non-accepted plans are automatically accepted and become usable by the optimizer if they perform better than the existing accepted plans.
E.    The non-accepted plans in a SQL plan baseline are automatically evolved, in COMPREHENSIVE mode, during the nightly maintenance window and a persistent verification report is generated.

Answer: ADE
Explanation:
With adaptive SQL plan management, DBAs no longer have to manually run the verification or evolve process for non-accepted plans. When automatic SQL tuning is in COMPREHENSIVE mode, it runs a verification or evolve process for all SQL statements that have non-accepted plans during the nightly maintenance window. If the non-accepted plan performs better than the existing accepted plan (or plans) in the SQL plan baseline, then the plan is automatically accepted and becomes usable by the optimizer. After the verification is complete, a persistent report is generated detailing how the non-accepted plan performs compared to the accepted plan performance. Because the evolve process is now an AUTOTASK, DBAs can also schedule their own evolve job at end time.
Note:
* The optimizer is able to adapt plans on the fly by predetermining multiple subplans for portions of the plan.
* Adaptive plans, introduced in Oracle Database 12c, enable the optimizer to defer the final plan decision for a statement until execution time. The optimizer instruments its chosen plan (the default plan) with statistics collectors so that it can detect at runtime, if its cardinality estimates differ greatly from the actual number of rows seen by the operations in the plan. If there is a significant difference, then the plan or a portion of it will be automatically adapted to avoid suboptimal performance on the first execution of a SQL statement.

QUESTION 42
You create a new pluggable database, HR_PDB, from the seed database. Which three tablespaces are created by default in HR_PDB?

A.    SYSTEM
B.    SYSAUX
C.    EXAMPLE
D.    UNDO
E.    TEMP
F.    USERS

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
* A PDB would have its SYSTEM, SYSAUX, TEMP tablespaces.It can also contains other user created tablespaces in it.
* Oracle Database creates both the SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces as part of every database.
* tablespace_datafile_clauses
Use these clauses to specify attributes for all data files comprising the SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces in the seed PDB.
Incorrect:
Not D: a PDB can not have an undo tablespace. Instead, it uses the undo tablespace belonging to the CDB.

QUESTION 43
Which two statements are true about variable extent size support for large ASM files?

A.    The metadata used to track extents in SGA is reduced.
B.    Rebalance operations are completed faster than with a fixed extent size.
C.    An ASM Instance automatically allocates an appropriate extent size.
D.    Resync operations are completed faster when a disk comes online after being taken offline.
E.    Performance improves in a stretch cluster configuration by reading from a local copy of an extent.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
A: Variable size extents enable support for larger ASM datafiles, reduce SGA memory requirements for very large databases (A), and improve performance for file create and open operations.
C: You don’t have to worry about the sizes; the ASM instance automatically allocates the appropriate extent size.
Note:
* The contents of ASM files are stored in a disk group as a set, or collection, of data extents that are stored on individual disks within disk groups. Each extent resides on an individual disk. Extents consist of one or more allocation units (AU). To accommodate increasingly larger files, ASM uses variable size extents.
* The size of the extent map that defines a file can be smaller by a factor of 8 and 64 depending on the file size. The initial extent size is equal to the allocation unit size and it increases by a factor of 8 and 64 at predefined thresholds. This feature is automatic for newly created and resized datafiles when the disk group compatibility attributes are set to Oracle Release 11 or higher.

QUESTION 44
You executed a DROP USER CASCADE on an Oracle 11g release 1 database and immediately realized that you forgot to copy the OCA.EXAM_RESULTS table to the OCP schema. The RECYCLE_BIN enabled before the DROP USER was executed and the OCP user has been granted the FLASHBACK ANY TABLE system privilege. What is the quickest way to recover the contents of the OCA.EXAM_RESULTS table to the OCP schema?

A.    Execute FLASHBACK TABLE OCA.EXAM_RESULTS TO BEFORE DROP RENAME TO OCP.EXAM_RESULTS; connected as SYSTEM.
B.    Recover the table using traditional Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.
C.    Recover the table using Automated Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.
D.    Recovery the table using Database Point In Time Recovery.
E.    Execute FLASHBACK TABLE OCA.EXAM_RESULTS TO BEFORE DROP RENAME TO EXAM_RESULTS; connected as the OCP user.

Answer: C
Explanation:
RMAN tablespace point-in-time recovery (TSPITR). Recovery Manager (RMAN) TSPITR enables quick recovery of one or more tablespaces in a database to an earlier time without affecting the rest of the tablespaces and objects in the database.
Fully Automated (the default)
In this mode, RMAN manages the entire TSPITR process including the auxiliary instance. You specify the tablespaces of the recovery set, an auxiliary destination, the target time, and you allow RMAN to manage all other aspects of TSPITR.
The default mode is recommended unless you specifically need more control over the location of recovery set files after TSPITR, auxiliary set files during TSPITR, channel settings and parameters or some other aspect of your auxiliary instance.

QUESTION 45
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable database (PDBs), the HR user executes the following commands to create and grant privileges on a procedure:
CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE create_test_v (v_emp_id NUMBER, v_ename VARCHAR2, v_SALARY NUMBER, v_dept_id NUMBER)
BEGIN
INSERT INTO hr.test VALUES (V_emp_id, V_ename, V_salary, V_dept_id);
END;
/
GRANT EXECUTE ON CREATE_TEST TO john, jim, smith, king;
How can you prevent users having the EXECUTE privilege on the CREATE_TEST procedure from inserting values into tables on which they do not have any privileges?

A.    Create the CREATE_TEST procedure with definer’s rights.
B.    Grant the EXECUTE privilege to users with GRANT OPTION on the CREATE_TEST procedure.
C.    Create the CREATE_TEST procedure with invoker’s rights.
D.    Create the CREATE_TEST procedure as part of a package and grant users the EXECUTE privilege the package.

Answer: C
Explanation:
If a program unit does not need to be executed with the escalated privileges of the definer, you should specify that the program unit executes with the privileges of the caller, also known as the invoker. Invoker’s rights can mitigate the risk of SQL injection.
Incorrect:
Not A: By default, stored procedures and SQL methods execute with the privileges of their owner, not their current user. Such definer-rights subprograms are bound to the schema in which they reside.
Not B: Using the GRANT option, a user can grant an Object privilege to another user or to PUBLIC.

QUESTION 46
You created a new database using the “create database” statement without specifying the “ENABLE PLUGGABLE” clause. What are two effects of not using the “ENABLE PLUGGABLE database” clause?

A.    The database is created as a non-CDB and can never contain a PDB.
B.    The database is treated as a PDB and must be plugged into an existing multitenant container database (CDB).
C.    The database is created as a non-CDB and can never be plugged into a CDB.
D.    The database is created as a non-CDB but can be plugged into an existing CDB.
E.    The database is created as a non-CDB but will become a CDB whenever the first PDB is plugged in.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
A (not B,not E): The CREATE DATABASE … ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE SQL statement creates a new CDB. If you do not specify the ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE clause, then the newly created database is a non-CDB and can never contain PDBs.
D: You can create a PDB by plugging in a Non-CDB as a PDB. The following graphic depicts the options for creating a PDB:
passleader-1z0-062-dumps-461
Incorrect:
Not E: For the duration of its existence, a database is either a CDB or a non-CDB. You cannot transform a non-CDB into a CDB or vice versa. You must define a database as a CDB at creation, and then create PDBs within this CDB.

QUESTION 47
You have installed two 64G flash devices to support the Database Smart Flash Cache feature on your database server that is running on Oracle Linux. You have set the DB_SMART_FLASH_FILE parameter:
DB_FLASH_CACHE_FILE= `/dev/flash_device_1 `,’ /dev/flash_device_2′
How should the DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE be configured to use both devices?

A.    Set DB_FLASH_CACHE_ZISE = 64G
B.    Set DB_FLASH_CACHE_ZISE = 64G, 64G
C.    Set DB_FLASH_CACHE_ZISE = 128G
D.    DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE is automatically configured by the instance at startup.

Answer: B
Explanation:
* Smart Flash Cache concept is not new in Oracle 12C – DB Smart Flash Cache in Oracle 11g. In this release Oracle has made changes related to both initialization parameters used by DB Smart Flash cache. Now you can define many files|devices and its sizes for “Database Smart Flash Cache” area. In previous releases only one file|device could be defined.
DB_FLASH_CACHE_FILE = /dev/sda, /dev/sdb, /dev/sdc
DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE = 32G, 32G, 64G
So above settings defines 3 devices which will be in use by “DB Smart Flash Cache”
/dev/sda  size 32G
/dev/sdb  size 32G
/dev/sdc  size 64G

QUESTION 48
What is the effect of specifying the “ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE” clause in a “CREATE DATABASE” statement?

A.    It will create a multitenant container database (CDB) with only the root opened.
B.    It will create a CDB with root opened and seed read only.
C.    It will create a CDB with root and seed opened and one PDB mounted.
D.    It will create a CDB that must be plugged into an existing CDB.
E.    It will create a CDB with root opened and seed mounted.

Answer: B
Explanation:
* The CREATE DATABASE … ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE SQL statement creates a new CDB. If you do not specify the ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE clause, then the newly created database is a non-CDB and can never contain PDBs.
Along with the root (CDB$ROOT), Oracle Database automatically creates a seed PDB (PDB$SEED). The following graphic shows a newly created CDB:
passleader-1z0-062-dumps-481
* Creating a PDB
Rather than constructing the data dictionary tables that define an empty PDB from scratch, and then populating its Obj$ and Dependency$ tables, the empty PDB is created when the CDB is created. (Here, we use empty to mean containing no customer-created artifacts.) It is referred to as the seed PDB and has the name PDB$Seed. Every CDB non-negotiably contains a seed PDB; it is non-negotiably always open in read-only mode. This has no conceptual significance; rather, it is just an optimization device. The create PDB operation is implemented as a special case of the clone PDB operation.


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